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Best 5 club teams in history of Football:
Liverpool 1977-1978 - 100.00%
1 Vote
Real Madrid 1956-1960 - 0%
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Juventus 1985 - 0%
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Milan 1989-1990 - 100.00%
1 Vote
Ajax 1971-1973 - 0%
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Santos 1962-1963 - 0%
0 Votes
Torinho 1940's - 100.00%
1 Vote
Ajax 1995 - 0%
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Flamengo 1981 - 100.00%
1 Vote
Benfica 1961-1962 - 100.00%
1 Vote
Total Votes: 1
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Old 11-18-2007, 06:07 PM   shareholders dividend Post #51
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Quote:
Originally posted by mousey:
BJC123 has a good point. Players are assets. Assets must meet the definition criteria of assets. 1) future economic benefits, 2) future benefits must be controlled by the entity, 3)the future economic benefits must be currently controlled by the entity because of past event/transaction.

The thing that puzzles me is whether players have future economic benefits. Do future economic benefits come in the form of prize money? If so the recognition criteria cannot satisfy it as I remember that there must be a probability of 75% that future economic benefits must flow towards the entity. Football is like a game of dice, you never know when you win or lose; the best team can lose.

Or does it come from shirt sales? I wonder what happens if the player is so shitty that no one wants to purchase his shirts?
My lecturer explained this to us last week, basically all the points you've made are correct as far as future economic benefits are concerned, a player provides economic benefits from the shirts he sells (and other sponsorship), the future extra prize money he may contribute toward, TV revenue from cup and European matches if he helps you progress further than you usually would, increased gate receipts etc.

As for the 75% thing, it's probably a bit redundant, if you have 23 players then maybe he probability of an extra player bringing future economic gain is less than 75%, but having players gives a 100% guarantee of future economic gain, buying an 11th if you have 10 gives near 100%, a 15th if you have 14 is still much higher than 75% and so on according to the law of diminishing returns.
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Old 11-18-2007, 07:07 PM   shareholders dividend Post #52
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I'm fairly sure it goes as follows...

Dividends are paid out on Reserves. If you have negative Reserves any Dividend would be deemed illegal by the Inland Revenue and they would in turn look to treat it as salary aand they would gross the Dividend payment up and collect PAYE and NI on the payment.

Reserves are (in basic terms) the companies assets less liablities, so that could be as simple as its Bank Balance plus say the value of it's purchased players, less the money owed on these players and any other Loans etc...Obviously profit/loss impacts on the companies Bank Balance on an ongoing basis, so other posters comments regarding paying dividends on previous years profits does also stand!
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