iantarver

I am trying to bid on a young celtic midfielder who looks like he might be a very tasty prospect. My original bid was rejected but then they offered him to me for £3.9million plus 40% sell on clause. I tried to negotiate but they were having none of it but then I had a thought. If i accept their terms can I, in future when/if I come to sell him, sell him to a team for £0 upfront and then say £40million after 10 games (for example) and then owe Celtic nothing?

I was just wondering if anyone has tried this before and if it works.

Passer-by

They probably get 40% when you get that 40m

fmj

Hi iantarver,

No, the game is not that stupid! (Sadly! ) They get 40% of the monthly payments.

iantarver

It wouldn't be the monthly payments fmj. I was thinking of adding the option whereby i would get the money after 10 league appearences or 1 international appearence or something like that. The reason i thought of it was that if it were a normal transfer when you add a sell-on clause you normally only get or recieve the percentage of the lump sum rather than the clauses.

spoonguardreturns

I would assume that, whenever you got any money as a direct consequence of the selling of that player, 40% would go to Celtic. So, if you were to sell him for £4,000,000 a game for ten games, Celtic would get £1,600,000 per game.

FelixX

I think hes right the game would not take money out of this payment but think that he just sold the player for nothing

Gd find