[James07?]

But what about the timewar and all that stuff? If he wasn't one of the Darleks that ended up in the void, shouldn't we assume he's dead?

[gavnoble]

There's been nothing to say he was involved with the Time War and he isn't a Dalek so why should it be assumed he was killed by either the Time War or the void?

[James07?]

Gotta remember, I'm not a total Dr Who geek, so I'm only asking questions...so just say if I'm wrong.

As I remember it the timewar wiped out all the timelords (according to the doctor) and ALL the Darleks (and I'd assume their society etc so to me that'd include their leader?) except for those that escaped into the void (how did that happen?)...?

[James07?]

I just get the feeling that between the old series, the new series and all the literature the histories are so mixed up and contradictory the writers could pretty much do what they want and get away with it.

[James07?]

Oh, and what about my other question in the top post?

[Gregg Carter]

Originally posted by James07?:
Oh, and what about my other question in the top post?

I think in one episode of the new series the Doctor was recognised as the "killer of his people" can't remember exactly when that was though.

[Gregg Carter]

from wiki

In The Satan Pit, the Beast says that he recognises the Doctor as "the killer of his own kind".

[gavnoble]

Originally posted by James07?:
Oh, and what about my other question in the top post?

That is a tough one as the only line in the new series to suggest he is the last of his kind is in the first series episode six (Dalek) when Rose says that the dalek survived so maybe some of his own people did too and the Doc replies by saying he'd know in here (tapping his head).

In the old series there was a suggestion that the Timelords were telepathic therefore they would be able to recognise their own race whenever they crossed paths. This telepathy may be why the Doctor thinks he is the last of his race, but I would think that as the Doctor can block others from reading his mind then the same would apply to other Timelords so while he may think he's the last he probably isn't.

[gavnoble]

Originally posted by James07?:
I just get the feeling that between the old series, the new series and all the literature the histories are so mixed up and contradictory the writers could pretty much do what they want and get away with it.

Generally the continuity between the old series and the new series is pretty consistent. Going back over the old series there aren't too many instances when the continuty contradicts itself really even though the old series writers often said continutiy gets in the way so you make your own, the biggest continutiy issue is really with the dating of the UNIT stories. The rest of the series hangs together pretty well.

[Synthahols_for_Girls]

Originally posted by Gregg Carter:
<BLOCKQUOTE>Originally posted by James07?:
Oh, and what about my other question in the top post?

I think in one episode of the new series the Doctor was recognised as the "killer of his people" can't remember exactly when that was though. </BLOCKQUOTE>

From the hints that have been given I get the fealing that during the final battle the Dr had a choice that he could end the Darleks, but would kill the timelords too

And that he deliberatly chose to end the darlek threat knowing this